Let S be the set of all $(\alpha, \beta) \in R \times R$ such that
$$
\lim _{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\sin \left(x^2\right)\left(\log _e x\right)^\alpha \sin \left(\frac{1}{x^2}\right)}{x^{\alpha \beta}\left(\log _e(1+x)\right)^\beta}=0
$$
Then which of the following is (are) correct?
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