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JEE MAIN_2022
26-07-2022_S1
Question
If for some $p, q, r \in R$, not all have same sign, one of the roots of the equation $\left(p^2+q^2\right) x^2-2 q(p+r) x+q^2+r^2=$ 0 is also a root of the equation $x^2+2 x-8=0$, then $\frac{q^2+r^2}{p^2}$ is equal to -
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Question Tags
JEE Main
Mathematics
Hard
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