Consider the two statements :
$(\mathrm{S} 1):(\mathrm{p} \rightarrow \mathrm{q}) \vee(\sim \mathrm{q} \rightarrow \mathrm{p})$ is a tautology.
$(S 2):(p \wedge \sim q) \wedge(\sim p \cup \dot{q})$ is a fallacy.
Then :
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