Given the following two statements:
$\left(\mathrm{S}_1\right):(\mathrm{q} \vee \mathrm{p}) \rightarrow(\mathrm{p} \leftrightarrow \sim \mathrm{q})$ is a tautology:
$\left(\mathrm{S}_2\right): \sim \mathrm{q} \wedge(\sim \mathrm{p} \leftrightarrow \mathrm{q})$ is a fallacy. Then :
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