CBSE English Core Sample Paper Class 12 2026-27 with Solutions PDF: Reading, Writing & Literature
CBSE English Core Sample Paper Class 12 2026-27 with Solutions PDF: Reading, Writing & Literature
All 13 questions solved with answers, explanations and the marking scheme for the CBSE Class 12 English Core (301) sample paper 2026-27.
Table of Contents
This page has the full CBSE English Core sample paper class 12 2026-27 with solutions. All 13 questions are answered below, from the reading passages to the long literature answers, with the marking scheme, and you can download everything as a free PDF.
In English, half of your marks come from how you write, not just what you write. Formats for notices, invitations, letters and articles are fixed, and literature answers are marked on content, organisation and expression. The solved answers below show that structure clearly.
Literature carries 40 of the 80 marks, all from Flamingo and Vistas, so the answers in Section C are the best guide to how much detail examiners expect.
Download Cbse english core sample paper class 12 Solutions PDF
CBSE Class 12 English Core Sample Paper 2026-27: Complete Solutions
- All 13 questions solved, including internal choices
- Step-wise marking scheme for every answer
- Clear explanations in simple language
- Free, no login, works on mobile
English Core Sample Paper Class 12 2026-27 Pattern
CBSE has stated that there is no change in the question paper design for the 2026-27 session, so this is the structure of your board paper.
| Section | Questions | Question Types | Marks |
|---|---|---|---|
| A: Reading | 1 to 2 | Two unseen passages | 22 |
| B: Creative Writing | 3 to 6 | Notice, invitation/reply, letter, article/report | 18 |
| C: Literature | 7 to 13 | Flamingo and Vistas: extracts, short and long answers | 40 |
| Total | 13 | Duration: 3 hours | 80 |
Official source: CBSE Academic, Sample Question Papers Class XII 2026-27.
How These English Core Sample Paper Solutions Are Written
Each question below opens into a full solution with three parts.
Answer
The correct option or the complete written answer, as you should write it in the exam.
Explanation
Why the answer is correct, so you can solve similar questions.
Marking Scheme
Where each mark is given, so you know what the examiner looks for.
English Core Sample Paper Solutions: Section A: Reading Skills (Q1 and Q2, 22 marks)
Q112Read the following passage.Tap to view answer and marking scheme
1. Every December, the Geminids meteor shower occurs as the Earth passes through a stream of cosmic debris associated with a near-Earth asteroid. It is classified as one of the most active annual meteor showers based on recorded meteor counts and the regularity of its appearance. The Geminids are expected to reach peak activity on the night of 13-14 December, during which observers across India may record a high frequency of visible meteors. Under favourable atmospheric conditions, observation rates can exceed 100 meteors per hour, making the Geminids one of the most productive meteor showers observable from Earth.
2. Meteor showers occur when fragments of dust and rock enter the Earth’s atmosphere at extremely high speeds and disintegrate due to friction, producing brief streaks of light. The Geminids are distinctive because they originate from a rocky asteroid known as 3200 Phaethon, rather than from a comet, which is the usual source of meteor showers. When Phaethon approaches the Sun during its orbit, it releases material that spreads along its orbital path. Each year in mid-December, the Earth intersects this debris stream, leading to increased meteor activity.
3. The meteors appear to radiate from the constellation Gemini, located in the northern sky. This apparent point of origin, known as the radiant, is used to identify the shower, although the meteors themselves may be seen across different regions of the sky. The most suitable time for observation is from midnight to the early morning hours, when the radiant rises higher above the horizon, improving the chances of sightings.
4. Observation of the Geminids does not require telescopes or binoculars, as such equipment limits the field of view. The unaided eye is considered the most effective method for observing meteor showers. Observers are advised to allow adequate time for their eyes to adjust to darkness. Viewing conditions are influenced by cloud cover, atmospheric clarity, moonlight, and light pollution. Locations away from urban lighting generally provide better visibility.
5. Historical records indicate that the Geminids were first documented in the mid-nineteenth century. Since then, their activity has increased steadily, making them one of the most reliable and frequently studied meteor showers. The meteors travel at a relatively moderate speed compared to those of other showers, which often results in brighter and longer-lasting streaks.
6. For students, educators, and amateur astronomers, the Geminids offer a valuable opportunity to observe a recurring astronomical phenomenon and understand Earth’s interaction with near-Earth objects. The event supports scientific learning by demonstrating how celestial debris produces visible effects in the Earth’s atmosphere. Source: indiatoday.in [417 words]
Answer
the following questions, based on the given passage.
I Which evidence from paragraph 1 tells us that the Geminids are exceptionally active? [1] Ans. Observation rates can exceed 100 meteors per hour. [This numerical evidence directly indicates unusually high activity compared to other meteor showers.]
II Complete the following with a suitable reason. (paragraph 2) [1] The writer refers to 3200 Phaethon as a ‘rocky asteroid’ rather than a ‘comet’ in order to tell the reader that _______. Ans. the Geminids originate from a rocky asteroid and not from a comet, which is the usual source of meteor showers.
III Based on the passage, how does friction help in making the Geminids visible to observers on Earth?
(paragraph 2) [1] Ans. Friction causes the incoming dust and rock fragments to heat up as they pass through Earth’s atmosphere, making them glow and produce bright streaks of light that can be seen from the ground.
IV Which of the following statements best captures the functional role of the ‘radiant’ as described in the passage? (paragraph 3) [1]
A. It is the physical location where cosmic debris is created.
B. It serves as visual guide for observers to locate the shower.
C. It determines the speed fragments enter the atmosphere.
D. It represents the exact area where all meteors disappear Ans. B. It serves as a visual guide for observers to locate the shower. [The passage explains that the radiant helps identify the shower’s apparent point of origin.]
V How can we say that the Geminids are more ‘observer-friendly’ than other showers? (Any one reason) (Paragraph 5) [1] Ans. They can be observed with the unaided eye. Additional value points:
• They produce brighter and longer-lasting streaks of light.
• They occur during a predictable annual window in mid-December.
• They have a high meteor count, sometimes exceeding 100 meteors per hour.
• They are visible across different regions of the sky, not confined to one narrow area.
• No specialised equipment like telescopes or binoculars is required. [Accept any one reason that shows ease of observation or accessibility, supported by the passage.]
VI Which of the following best explains why the Geminids are frequently studied by scientists? [1]
A. Their activity has shown a steady increase over time.
B. Their meteors travel at extremely high speeds.
C. Their observation requires specialised equipment.
D. Their radiant shifts position across the sky. Ans. A. Their activity has shown a steady increase over time. [Long-term consistency and growth make the Geminids scientifically valuable for study.] VII How does the mention of the ‘mid-nineteenth century’ documentation contribute to the authority of the claims made about the shower? (Answer in about 40 words) [2] Ans. Mentioning documentation since the mid-nineteenth century establishes a long observational history. This strengthens the credibility of claims about increasing activity and reliability, as they are supported by sustained scientific observation rather than recent data alone. VIII The writer’s tone throughout the passage can best be described as ______. [1]
A. persuasive and promotional, encouraging mass participation
B. explanatory and informative, aimed at scientific understanding
C. speculative and argumentative, questioning existing theories
D. celebratory and emotional, highlighting wonder over facts Ans. B. explanatory and informative, aimed at scientific understanding [The passage presents factual explanations about the Geminids - its origin, causes, observation conditions and scientific significance - in a neutral and objective manner. It informs and explains rather than persuading, speculating or expressing emotion.] IX What does the moderate speed of the Geminids and the resulting ‘longer-lasting streaks’ suggest about the quality of the viewing experience? (Answer in about 40 words) [2] Ans. The moderate speed allows the meteors to burn longer in the atmosphere, producing brighter and more sustained streaks of light. This enhances visibility and gives observers more time to notice and appreciate each meteor. X Complete the following with the most suitable option. [1] The main idea of the passage is the ______.
A. technical process of how asteroids shed cosmic debris
B. impact of light pollution on modern scientific learning
C. historical evolution of astronomy since the nineteenth century
D. scientific explanation and practical observation of Geminids Ans. D. scientific explanation and practical observation of Geminids [The passage combines a scientific explanation of the origin and nature of the Geminids with practical guidance on when, where and how to observe the meteor shower, making option D the most comprehensive representation of the main idea.]
Marking Scheme
1 mark each for parts I to VI, VIII and X. 2 marks each for parts VII and IX. Total: 12 marks.
Q210Read the following passage carefully.Tap to view answer and marking scheme
1. A recent study on the growth of India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) provides an insightful glimpse into how everyday financial habits are changing across the country. The first study tracks the volume of transactions over four Octobers.
2. In October 2021, UPI processed 4.21 billion payments - a number that already reflected a growing preference for digital transactions. By October 2022, this figure rose to 7.30 billion, suggesting that more people were discovering the convenience of transferring money with just a tap on their phones. The momentum continued into October 2023, when volumes touched 11.40 billion, and by October 2024, the platform reached an impressive 16.58 billion transactions.
3. The second study traces the value of these transactions, revealing a similar pattern of rising confidence. In October 2021, UPI transactions were worth 7.71 lakh crore. A year later, the value climbed to 12.11 lakh ₹ ₹ crore, indicating that users were comfortable using the platform for higher-value payments as well. This trust deepened in October 2023, with the value rising to 17.15 lakh crore, and peaked in October 2024, ₹ reaching 23.49 lakh crore. ₹
4. Together, the two studies tell a human story - one of a country steadily shifting from cash to digital payments. The rising numbers suggest that UPI is no longer limited to tech-savvy users; it has reached shops, homes, workplaces, and even small roadside vendors. With QR codes becoming familiar sights and smartphones becoming more accessible, people now pay for groceries, services, transport, and bills through quick digital transfers.
5. The studies also hint at a broader change in mindset. As digital payments become routine, users appear more confident that these systems are secure, reliable, and easier to manage than handling cash. This transition has supported small businesses, reduced the need for physical currency, and encouraged more people to participate in formal financial systems.
6. Overall, the four-year data captures a simple yet powerful trend: UPI has grown from being a convenient payment option to becoming an essential part of daily financial life for millions of Indians. Source: pib.gov.in [333 words]
Answer
the following questions based on the given passage.
I What was the purpose of tracking the four-year growth of India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
(paragraph 1) [1]
A. To analyse the technical infrastructure supporting digital banking systems
B. To understand changes in payment behaviour among different user groups
C. To determine the number of vendors using smartphone-based payments
D. To compare patterns of digital transactions with traditional cash practices Ans. B. To understand changes in payment behaviour among different user groups [The passage explicitly states that the study provides an ‘insightful glimpse into how everyday financial habits are changing across the country’ and tells a ‘human story’ of a country shifting from cash to digital payments.]
II Analyse whether the percentage growth in the total value of UPI transactions is greater than, less than, or roughly the same as the percentage growth in the number of transactions. State your choice and briefly justify your answer with reference to paragraph 2. [1] Ans. The percentage growth in the total value of UPI transactions is less than the percentage growth in the number of transactions. Justification:
Between October 2021 and October 2024 the number of transactions rose from 4.21 billion to 16.58 billion - nearly four times, a growth of about 294%. Over the same period the value rose from 7.71 ₹ lakh crore to 23.49 lakh crore - about three times, a growth of about 205%. The volume therefore ₹ grew faster than the value, which also means the average value per transaction fell slightly, reflecting the spread of UPI to small, everyday payments. Identification - ½ · Justification - ½
III Which of the following statements best describes the overall pattern with reference to paragraph 3?
[1]
A. Both the number of transactions and the total value of transactions increase steadily over the four years.
B. The number of transactions increases, but the total value of transactions decreases year after year.
C. The total value of transactions increases, but the number of transactions stays almost unchanged.
D. Both the number of transactions and the total value of transactions decrease after an initial increase. Ans. A. Both the number of transactions and the total value of transactions increase steadily over the four years. [There is a consistent year-on-year rise in both the volume and the value of UPI transactions from 2021 to 2024, indicating sustained growth rather than fluctuation or decline.]
IV Paragraph 4 mentions that UPI is used in ‘shops, homes, workplaces, and even small roadside vendors’. What does this suggest about the nature of UPI adoption? [1]
A. Dependence on organised commercial establishments
B. Widespread adoption across formal and informal settings
C. Usage limited to digitally advanced urban spaces
D. Usage restricted to specific consumer groups Ans. B. Widespread adoption across formal and informal settings [The reference to shops, homes, workplaces and small roadside vendors shows that UPI is used across both organised and unorganised sectors, indicating broad, inclusive adoption rather than limited or restricted usage.]
V Evaluate the impact of UPI’s expansion into formal financial systems on small business owners, with reference to the paragraph 5. (Answer in about 40 words) [2] Ans. The expansion of UPI into formal financial systems significantly improves financial management for small business owners by enabling digital transaction records, easier tracking of income, and reduced reliance on cash. However, the extent of benefit may depend on factors such as digital literacy and access to technology. Judgement on extent of impact (significantly / partially / to a large extent) - 1 · Logical justification with reference to benefits or limitations - 1
VI Which of the following aspects is NOT directly discussed in the passage? [1]
A. The growth pattern of UPI transactions over time
B. The changing public attitude towards digital payments
C. The policy framework governing digital payment systems
D. The effect of UPI adoption on small businesses Ans. C. The policy framework governing digital payment systems [The passage discusses transaction growth, changing user attitudes and the impact on small businesses, but it does not mention government policies, regulations or the policy framework related to digital payments.] VII Fill in the blank with the correct option from those given in brackets. [1] UPI’s usage by small roadside vendors primarily suggests that digital payment systems in India have become ________. (inclusive / exclusive / marginal) Ans. inclusive [The passage states that UPI is used not only in shops and workplaces but also by small roadside vendors. This shows that digital payments have reached both formal and informal sectors, indicating that the system includes a wide range of users rather than being limited or marginal.] VIII Rohan prefers to carry almost no cash and pays for groceries and transport using his phone. Using information from Paragraph 3 and the charts, explain giving two reasons why UPI is a more suitable option for him in 2024 than it might have been in 2021. (Answer in about 40 words) [2] Ans.
• Higher transaction value reflects user confidence.
• Greater reliability due to massive transaction volumes - increased volumes indicate system stability and acceptance, making UPI dependable for daily use.
• Wider acceptance across everyday settings.
• Reduced dependence on physical cash. Any two points - 1 + 1
Marking Scheme
1 mark each for parts I, III, IV, VI and VII. 1 mark for part II (Identification ½ + Justification ½). 2 marks each for parts V and VIII. Total: 10 marks. All the names and addresses used in the questions are fictitious. Resemblance, if any, is purely coincidental.
English Core Sample Paper Solutions: Section B: Creative Writing Skills (Q3 to Q6, 18 marks)
Q31 × 4 = 4Attempt any one of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words.Tap to view answer and marking scheme
(A) You are Rishitha Menon, a member of the Horizon Club of Bala Vidyalaya Senior Secondary School, Chennai. The school is organising a one-day workshop to help senior students improve their project work and presentation skills. Draft a notice inviting students to participate. Include necessary details and the registration process. Put your notice in a box.
OR
(B) You are Vijesh Kumar, the Secretary of Shantiniketan Residents’ Welfare Association, Chandigarh. The Association is organising a Marathon to create awareness on animal conservation, in collaboration with local animal welfare organisations. Write a notice inviting residents to participate. Include necessary details and registration process. Put your notice in a box.
Answer
(A) BALA VIDYALAYA SENIOR SECONDARY SCHOOL, CHENNAI HORIZON CLUB NOTICE 15 November 2026 ONE-DAY WORKSHOP ON PROJECT AND PRESENTATION SKILLS A one-day workshop for senior students will be held on Saturday, 28 November 2026, from 9:00 a.m. to 3:00 p.m. in the School Auditorium. Resource persons will guide participants on research, slide design and confident delivery. Register with the undersigned by 22 November. Seats are limited. Rishitha Menon Member, Horizon Club
Answer
(B) SHANTINIKETAN RESIDENTS’ WELFARE ASSOCIATION, CHANDIGARH NOTICE 10 December 2026 MARATHON FOR ANIMAL CONSERVATION A 5-km Marathon to create awareness about animal conservation will be held on Sunday, 21 December 2026 at 6:30 a.m., starting from the Community Park. It is organised with local animal welfare organisations. Residents may register at the Association office by 18 December. Vijesh Kumar Secretary
Marking Scheme
Format - 1 [Box, name of issuing authority / organisation (top centre), NOTICE (centre), date of issue (aligned left), authorisation - name, designation and signature (bottom left)] Full credit if all aspects are included. Partial credit (½ mark) if one or two aspects are missing. No credit if more than two aspects are missing. Content - 2 Accuracy of Spelling and Grammar - 1
Q41 × 4 = 4Attempt any one of the two, (A) or (B), in about 50 words.Tap to view answer and marking scheme
(A) You are Ananya, the lead coordinator of the Media Club at St. Xavier’s School, Odisha. Your club is organising a seminar titled Digital Storytelling & Ethics. Draft a formal invitation to Ishaan Grover, a popular local educational online expert and filmmaker, inviting him to be the keynote speaker and lead a hands-on editing session. Include essential details.
OR
(B) You are Dr. Sameer, an environmental scientist living in Bengaluru. You have received an invitation from Greenwood International School, Mysuru, to judge the ‘Waste-to-Wealth’ project competition. Write a formal reply accepting the invitation, and confirming your arrival.
Answer
(A) THE MEDIA CLUB ST. XAVIER’S SCHOOL, ODISHA requests the pleasure of the company of Mr Ishaan Grover as Keynote Speaker at the seminar DIGITAL STORYTELLING & ETHICS and to lead a hands-on editing session on Saturday, 12 December 2026 at 10:00 a.m. at the School Seminar Hall R.S.V.P. · Ananya, Lead Coordinator, Media Club (Formal invitation - written in the third person, without a signature.)
Answer
(B) Dr Sameer 24, Palm Grove Avenue, Bengaluru 5 December 2026 The Principal Greenwood International School, Mysuru Dear Sir / Madam Thank you for your kind invitation to judge the ‘Waste-to-Wealth’ project competition on 19 December 2026. I accept it with great pleasure and shall reach the school by 9:30 a.m. I look forward to the students’ innovative ideas. Yours sincerely Dr Sameer (Formal reply - written in the first person.)
Marking Scheme
Format - 1 Content - 2 Accuracy of spelling and grammar - 1 A - Letter type: formal / third person. B - Letter type: formal, first person.
Q51 × 5 = 5Attempt any one of the two, (A) or (B), in 120-150 words.Tap to view answer and marking scheme
(A) Instances of food wastage at weddings, parties, and large social gatherings have been steadily increasing in your city. As Kavya, a student volunteer residing at 45, Lake View Road, Jaipur, write a letter to the Editor of a local newspaper proposing a ‘Community Food Redistribution Initiative’ to address this issue. You may use the following cues to draft your letter:
• Extent of food wastage at social events
• Social and environmental consequences
• Collaboration with NGOs / food banks
• Mobilising volunteers for collection and distribution
• Promoting responsible consumption
OR
(B) You are Ranjay Thakur, a resident of 12, Mall Road, Shimla. You recently saw the following advertisement in ‘The Himalayan Times’ newspaper, for the post of a Sustainable Tourism Coordinator at ‘EcoTrails India’, a start-up focusing on responsible travel. You have a deep interest in environmental conservation and have volunteered for local cleanliness drives. Write a letter of application for a job in 120-150 words along with a detailed bio-data.
Answer
(A) 45, Lake View Road Jaipur 20 November 2026 The Editor The Rajasthan Herald Jaipur Subject: Proposal for a Community Food Redistribution Initiative Sir Through the columns of your esteemed newspaper, I wish to draw attention to the alarming quantity of food wasted at weddings, parties and large social gatherings in our city. Enormous amounts of cooked food are discarded every week while many families in the same neighbourhoods go hungry. Besides this social injustice, food rotting in landfills releases methane and contaminates groundwater. I therefore propose a ‘Community Food Redistribution Initiative’. Banquet halls and caterers could report surplus food to a central helpline, and registered NGOs and food banks could collect it in insulated vans within two hours. Student volunteers can be mobilised for collection, sorting and distribution, while hosts are encouraged to estimate quantities realistically. A simple, well-coordinated system can turn waste into nourishment and promote responsible consumption. Yours truly Kavya Student Volunteer
Answer
(B) 12, Mall Road Shimla 20 November 2026 The Hiring Manager EcoTrails India Shimla Subject: Application for the post of Sustainable Tourism Coordinator Sir / Madam With reference to your advertisement in ‘The Himalayan Times’ dated 18 November 2026, I wish to offer my candidature for the post of Sustainable Tourism Coordinator at EcoTrails India. I am a postgraduate in Environmental Studies with a sustained interest in conservation. I have volunteered regularly for cleanliness drives in and around Shimla and have helped resident groups organise awareness walks. These experiences have given me practical familiarity with community mobilisation, field coordination and responsible travel practices, together with sound communication and organisational skills. I am confident that I can plan eco-friendly travel initiatives and work effectively with local communities. My detailed bio-data is enclosed for your kind consideration. Yours sincerely Ranjay Thakur Encl.: Bio-data BIO-DATA Name : Ranjay Thakur Address : 12, Mall Road, Shimla - 171001 Date of Birth : 14 March 2001 Educational Qualifications : M.A. Environmental Studies, Himachal Pradesh University (2024); B.A. Tourism Studies (2022) Work Experience : Volunteer Coordinator, Shimla Clean Hills Drive (2023-2025); Intern, Himalayan Eco Trails (2024) Skills : Community mobilisation, itinerary planning, report writing Languages Known : English, Hindi References : Dr A. Sharma, Head, Department of Environmental Studies, H.P. University, Shimla
Marking Scheme
A. Letter to the Editor - Format: 1 (use ‘Yours truly’ as the complimentary close) · Organisation of Ideas: 1 · Content: 2 (as per cues + ideas) · Accuracy of Spelling and Grammar: 1
B. Job Application - Format: 1 (use ‘Yours sincerely’ as the complimentary close) · Organisation of Ideas: 1 · Content: 2 · Accuracy of Spelling and Grammar: 1 Covering letter: reference to the advertisement; suitability for the post as advertised; submission of application. Bio-data as a separate enclosure: personal details; educational qualifications (including the advertised requirements); work experience (if relevant); references; any other relevant information.
Q61 × 5 = 5Attempt any one of the two, (A) or (B), in 120-150 words.Tap to view answer and marking scheme
(A) As a teenager, you observe that an increasing number of your peers are affected by excessive social media use, particularly the habit of doom-scrolling*. Algorithm-driven content exposure is beginning to influence students’ mental well-being, attention span, and academic focus. Write an article for your school magazine highlighting why Digital Wellness should be integrated into the school curriculum. You are Smitha Jinan, Class 12 student reporter of SVA Public School, Thrissur. You may organise your ideas around the following cues.
• Prevalence of doom-scrolling among adolescents
• Impact of algorithm-driven content on teenage minds
• Effects on emotional health, concentration, and learning
• Role of schools in promoting responsible digital habits
• Encouraging mindful, purposeful use of technology *doom-scrolling: the action of constantly scrolling through, especially on a phone
OR
(B) You are Prem Kumar, Secretary of the Health Club at Sarvodaya Vidyalaya, New Delhi. Your school recently participated in the launch of the ‘Tobacco Free Youth Campaign’. Write a report in 120-150 words for your school magazine, detailing the event and the various activities planned under this national campaign.
• Organisation, launch date, and ties to national tobacco-free goals
• Rally route, slogans, pledges, and awareness activities
• Student participation in marches and interactions
• Outcomes, health pledges, and future campaigns
Answer
(A) Why Digital Wellness Belongs in Our Curriculum - Smitha Jinan, Class 12 Walk down any school corridor during a break and you will see thumbs moving upward in an endless scroll. Doom-scrolling has quietly become the default pastime of adolescents, and the algorithms behind it are designed to hold attention, not to protect it. The consequences are already visible. Constant exposure to sensational or distressing content unsettles emotional health, shortens attention spans and weakens the sustained concentration that serious learning demands. Many students admit that they open a textbook and reach for a phone within minutes. Schools cannot ban the internet, but they can teach its wise use. A Digital Wellness module - screen-time audits, guided reflection and simple lessons on how recommendation algorithms work - would help students use technology mindfully and purposefully. Digital literacy without digital wellness is incomplete. It is time our curriculum caught up.
Answer
(B) Sarvodaya Vidyalaya Joins ‘Tobacco Free Youth Campaign’ - Prem Kumar, Secretary, Health Club New Delhi, 25 November 2026 Sarvodaya Vidyalaya participated in the launch of the national ‘Tobacco Free Youth Campaign’ on 20 November 2026. The programme was organised by the school Health Club in collaboration with the District Health Department, in support of the national goal of a tobacco-free generation. The day began with a rally of over three hundred students that moved from the school gate through the Lajpat Nagar market and back. Participants carried placards and raised slogans such as ‘Say No to Tobacco, Say Yes to Life’. Students interacted with shopkeepers and residents and distributed leaflets on the hazards of tobacco use. At the closing assembly the Principal administered a pledge against tobacco, which every student signed. The Club announced monthly awareness sessions and an inter-house poster competition to carry the campaign forward.
Marking Scheme
Format - 1 mark Content - 2 marks Organisation of ideas - 1 mark Accuracy of Spelling and Grammar - 1 mark Article - expected structure Title / By-line - Paragraph 1 - Introduction Relevant topic sentence with supporting points Paragraph(s) 2 (and 3) - Body Various aspects of the topic - pros and cons / cause and effect; supporting points and strong evidence Paragraph 4 - Conclusion Writer’s opinion, comments, recommendations / solutions / suggestions; hope, warning or call for action Report - expected structure HEADLINE Short and catchy phrase BY-LINE Name and designation of the reporter PLACE & DATE Place of the event and the date of issue of the newspaper PARA 1 What happened; Why it happened; Who were involved; When - day, date and time; Where it happened [convey the essential facts concisely] PARA 2 How it happened [convey the essential facts concisely; may be written in two paragraphs] PARA 3 Steps taken / to be taken
English Core Sample Paper Solutions: Section C: Literature (Q7 to Q13, 40 marks)
Q71 × 6 = 6Read the following extracts and solve ANY ONE of the given two, (A) or (B).Tap to view answer and marking scheme
(A) A thing of beauty is a joy for ever:
Its loveliness increases; it will never Pass into nothingness; but still will keep A bower quiet for us, and a sleep Full of sweet dreams, and health, and quiet breathing. (A Thing of Beauty)
I Complete the following appropriately by choosing the correct option from those given in brackets. [1] The phrase ‘a joy for ever’ suggests that beauty continues to offer ________ beyond the limits of time. (inner fulfilment / physical permanence / social approval) Ans. inner fulfilment
II Complete the following appropriately: [1] A thing of beauty remains a lasting source of joy because ________. Ans. … its loveliness never fades and it continues to offer peace, comfort and emotional nourishment to the human mind over time.
III The image of ‘a bower quiet for us’ is best interpreted as beauty functioning as a ________. [1]
A. natural shelter formed by the physical world
B. deliberate escape from social obligations
C. protective inner refuge offering calm
D. symbolic reminder of human weakness Ans. C. protective inner refuge offering calm [The metaphor suggests a safe, peaceful mental space created by beauty, providing emotional shelter rather than a physical structure.]
IV Which experience is most clearly conveyed through the expressions ‘sweet dreams’ and ‘quiet breathing’? [1]
A. enjoyment of material comfort and luxury
B. attainment of emotional and mental peace
C. development of physical strength and endurance
D. appreciation of artistic and aesthetic pleasure Ans. B. attainment of emotional and mental peace [These expressions evoke calmness, relaxation and psychological comfort, not material pleasure or physical exertion.]
V How does the metaphor ‘a bower quiet for us’ contribute to the poet’s idea of beauty in the extract?
[1] Ans. The metaphor presents beauty as a comforting inner refuge that offers peace and rest to the human mind. It reinforces the idea that beauty soothes mental distress and provides lasting emotional support.
VI What contrast does the poet imply between ‘beauty’ and ‘nothingness’? [1] Ans. The poet contrasts beauty, which endures and nurtures the human spirit, with nothingness, which suggests emptiness and absence. While beauty offers continuity and comfort, nothingness represents loss and negation.
OR
(B) The little old house was out with a little new shed In front at the edge of the road where the traffic sped, A roadside stand that too pathetically pled, It would not be fair to say for a dole of bread, But for some of the money, the cash, whose flow supports The flower of cities from sinking and withering faint. (A Roadside Stand)
I Complete the following appropriately by choosing the correct option from those given in brackets. [1] The repeated use of the word ‘little’ suggests the __________ of the roadside stand and the house. (economic fragility / decorative simplicity / rural independence) Ans. economic fragility [The repetition of ‘little’ emphasises poverty, marginal existence and limited resources rather than aesthetic simplicity or independence.]
II Complete the following appropriately: [1] The phrase ‘traffic sped’ highlights the contrast between the fast-moving urban world and ________. Ans. … the slow, struggling rural life of the roadside sellers.
III Why does the poet clarify that the stand is not asking for ‘a dole of bread’? [1] Ans. The poet clarifies this to show that the villagers are not seeking charity but fair economic participation. They want dignity through earning, not dependence on handouts.
IV The phrase ‘whose flow supports / The flower of cities’ suggests that urban prosperity depends on ________. [1]
A. natural agricultural abundance
B. independent urban development
C. aesthetic appeal of city life
D. continuous circulation of wealth Ans. D. continuous circulation of wealth
V How does the poet’s choice of diction in the phrase ‘pathetically pled’ contribute to the tone of the extract? [1] Ans. The phrase creates a tone of quiet desperation and helpless appeal. It evokes sympathy by highlighting the villagers’ powerless condition and their ignored plea for economic justice.
VI Which idea is most strongly conveyed through the extract? [1]
A. Rural dependence on city charity
B. Rural-urban economic imbalance
C. Traffic as modern progress
D. Urban indifference to nature Ans. B. Rural-urban economic imbalance [The extract exposes the unequal relationship between prosperous cities and impoverished rural communities, where rural labour sustains urban wealth without fair returns.]
Marking Scheme
1 mark for each correct part (6 × 1 = 6).
Q81 × 4 = 4Read the following extracts and solve ANY ONE of the given two, (A) or (B).Tap to view answer and marking scheme
(A) Derry: You’re… peculiar. You say peculiar things. You ask questions I don’t understand. Mr Lamb: I like to talk. Have company. You don’t have to answer questions. You don’t have to stop here at all. The gate’s open. Derry: Yes, but… Mr Lamb: I’ve a hive of bees behind those trees over there. Some hear bees and they say, bees buzz. But when you listen to bees for a long while, they humm… and hum means ‘sing’. I hear them singing, my bees. Derry: But… I like it here. I came in because I liked it… when I looked over the wall. (On the Face of It)
I What does Mr Lamb mean when he says, “The gate’s open”? [1]
A. Visitors must ask permission before entering.
B. Anyone is free to enter or leave without restriction.
C. He does not want visitors to stay long.
D. The gate is broken and cannot be closed. Ans. B. Anyone is free to enter or leave without restriction. [Mr Lamb uses the open gate as a symbol of freedom, choice and acceptance. He does not impose himself on Derry and allows him complete autonomy.]
II How does Mr Lamb’s way of speaking challenge Derry’s initial perception of him as ‘peculiar’? [1] Ans. Mr Lamb’s calm, reflective and accepting manner shows warmth and openness rather than oddity. His thoughtful observations and lack of judgement gradually reveal depth and sensitivity, challenging Derry’s assumption that peculiarity means strangeness or threat.
III Mr Lamb’s description of bees as ‘singing’ rather than ‘buzzing’ reveals his tendency to _______. [1]
A. perceive ordinary sounds with sensitivity
B. interpret familiar experiences in a reflective way
C. describe natural sounds with poetic emphasis
D. respond to nature with thoughtful attentiveness Ans. A. perceive ordinary sounds with sensitivity [By interpreting buzzing as singing, Mr Lamb shows a positive, imaginative outlook that finds beauty and meaning in everyday experiences.]
IV What can be inferred about Derry’s emotional state from his statement, ‘I like it here’? [1] Ans. Derry feels a sense of comfort and acceptance in Mr Lamb’s presence. For the first time he experiences emotional ease and belonging, indicating a shift from fear and isolation to tentative trust.
OR
(B) And he added, “Because we are born into this community, we are never given any honour or dignity or respect; we are stripped of all that. But if we study and make progress, we can throw away these indignities. So study with care, learn all you can. If you are always ahead in your lessons, people will come to you of their own accord and attach themselves to you. Work hard and learn.” The words that Annan spoke to me that day made a very deep impression on me. And I studied hard, with all my breath and being, in a frenzy almost. (Memories of Childhood II)
I According to Annan, what is the main reason the community is denied honour and respect? [1]
A. They lack access to formal education opportunities.
B. They refuse to follow dominant social customs.
C. They fail to assert themselves in public spaces.
D. They are born into a socially marginalised sector. Ans. D. They are born into a socially marginalised sector. [Annan explicitly states that being ‘born into this community’ leads to the denial of dignity, showing that discrimination is based on birth, not individual merit.]
II Annan’s advice to ‘study with care’ reflects his belief that education can ________. [1]
A. ensure material comfort and financial stability.
B. replace traditional knowledge systems completely.
C. transform social status and restore lost dignity.
D. help individuals escape personal responsibility. Ans. C. transform social status and restore lost dignity. [Annan views education as a tool to overcome social indignities and gain respect, not merely material success.]
III What can be inferred about the narrator from the phrase ‘with all my breath and being’? [1] Ans. Intense determination / complete commitment to education / deep resolve to overcome social discrimination.
IV List any one way how Annan’s advice, “Work hard and learn,” contributes to his characterisation in this extract. [1] Ans. It portrays Annan as a visionary and compassionate guide who believes in education as a means of empowerment and social equality.
Marking Scheme
1 mark for each correct part (4 × 1 = 4).
Q91 × 6 = 6Read the following extracts and solve ANY ONE of the given two, (A) or (B).Tap to view answer and marking scheme
(A) Their father had washed when he came in and his face and arms were shiny and pink and he smelled of soap. He switched on the television, tossed one of little Derek’s shoes from his chair onto the sofa, and sat down with a grunt. “Sophie meet Danny Casey,” Geoff said. Sophie wriggled where she was sitting at the table. Her father turned his head on his thick neck to look at her. His expression was one of disdain. “It’s true,” Geoff said. “I once knew a man who had known Tom Finney,” his father said reverently to the television. “But that was a long time ago.” “You told us,” Geoff said. (Going Places)
I Which description of Sophie’s father in the extract indicates that he does not take her claim seriously? [1]
1. He smells of soap.
2. He sits down with a grunt.
3. He turns his head to look at Sophie.
4. He continues to watch television.
5. His expression is one of disdain. Select the most suitable option.
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 4 and 5
D. 3 and 5 Ans. C. 4 and 5 [He speaks ‘reverently to the television’ rather than to Sophie, and his expression is one of disdain - both show dismissal of her claim.]
II Complete the following appropriately. [1] The father’s casual actions at the beginning of the extract suggest a ________ attitude towards his surroundings. Ans. Any one of the following:
• practical
• indifferent
• routine-bound
• unceremonious
• matter-of-fact
III Why does Sophie’s father refer to knowing ‘a man who had known Tom Finney’? [1] Ans. To suggest that genuine associations with famous people are distant and indirect, contrasting with Sophie’s improbable claim.
IV What does Sophie’s physical reaction (wriggled) reveal about her emotional state at that moment?
[1] Ans. It reveals Sophie’s nervousness and discomfort, showing her anxiety about her father’s reaction.
V The line “It’s true,” spoken by Geoff, highlights his role in the interaction between Sophie and their father. Explain. [1] Ans. Geoff acts as a mediator by supporting Sophie’s claim, attempting to validate her statement in front of their father.
VI Which central conflict is most likely highlighted through the interaction among Sophie, Geoff, and their father? [1]
A. Tension between imagination and realism
B. Emotional distance within working-class families
C. Generational disagreement over attitudes and beliefs
D. Contrast between admiration and sceptical realism Ans. A. Tension between imagination and realism [The interaction contrasts Sophie’s imaginative claim of meeting Danny Casey with her father’s sceptical and dismissive reaction. Geoff’s hesitant support further highlights the divide between youthful fantasy and practical realism.]
OR
(B) The make-up room had the look of a hair-cutting salon with lights at all angles around half a dozen large mirrors. They were all incandescent lights, so you can imagine the fiery misery of those subjected to make-up. The make-up department was first headed by a Bengali who became too big for a studio and left. He was succeeded by a Maharashtrian who was assisted by a Dharwar Kannadiga, an Andhra, a Madras Indian Christian, an Anglo-Burmese and the usual local Tamils. All this shows that there was a great deal of national integration long before A.I.R. and Doordarshan began broadcasting programmes on national integration. (Poets and Pancakes)
I Which of the following details about the make-up room are explicitly mentioned in the extract? [1]
1. The room was fitted with many large mirrors and bright lights.
2. The lighting caused discomfort to those subjected to make-up.
3. The make-up work required technical expertise in lighting.
4. The department included people from different regions of India.
5. The writer expresses personal emotional involvement with the room. Select the most suitable option.
A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2, 3 and 5
C. 1, 3 and 4
D. 3, 4 and 5 Ans. A. 1, 2 and 4
II Complete the following sentence appropriately. [1] The phrase ‘fiery misery’ suggests that the intense lighting _______. Ans. … made the experience physically uncomfortable and almost unbearable for actors undergoing make-up.
III What can be inferred about studio life from the writer’s ironic tone in the extract? [1] Ans. The ironic tone suggests that studio life, while glamorous in appearance, involved discomfort and impractical working conditions behind the scenes.
IV How does the detailed listing of people from different regions function in the extract? [1]
A. To highlight efficiency within the studio system
B. To mock rigid systems of official classification
C. To emphasise diversity within shared workspace
D. To criticise imbalance among regional groups Ans. C. To emphasise diversity within shared workspace
V What is the most likely reason the author compares studio integration with A.I.R. and Doordarshan?
[1] Ans. To show that genuine national integration was practised informally in the studio much before it was officially promoted by state-run media.
VI Identify the irony in the professional setup of the Gemini Studios make-up room as described in the extract. [1] Ans. The irony lies in the fact that a space meant to enhance appearance and glamour actually caused discomfort and misery due to harsh working conditions.
Marking Scheme
1 mark for each correct part (6 × 1 = 6).
Q105 × 2 = 10Answer any five of the following six questions in 40-50 words each.Tap to view answer and marking scheme
I According to the interview, how did Umberto Eco make his academic writing accessible to readers?
(The Interview II) Ans. Umberto Eco made his academic writing accessible by blending scholarly ideas with clarity, humour and narrative elements. He avoided obscure jargon, used examples familiar to readers, and treated writing as a form of intellectual communication rather than mere technical exposition.
II Explain why the bangle makers of Firozabad are unable to imagine an alternative future despite their hardships. (Lost Spring) Ans. The bangle makers of Firozabad remain trapped by poverty, caste stigma and exploitative systems. Social conditioning, lack of education and fear of breaking inherited occupations prevent them from imagining alternative futures, making suffering seem inevitable rather than changeable.
III What does William Douglas’s experience in Deep Water suggest about the nature of fear and anticipation?
Ans. William Douglas’ experience shows that fear is intensified by anticipation rather than the actual event. His terror arose from imagined consequences, not drowning itself. Systematic training helped him confront this anticipation, proving that fear can be controlled through rational practice.
IV How does the Christmas episode influence the peddler’s perception of human relationships? (The Rattrap) Ans. The Christmas episode transforms the peddler’s cynical view of relationships as traps. Edla’s kindness and trust awaken his conscience, making him realise that compassion can inspire moral responsibility and change, even in someone hardened by suspicion and loneliness.
V Kamala Das uses imagery and restraint to convey unspoken anxiety rather than overt grief. Comment. (My Mother at Sixty-six) Ans. Kamala Das’ quiet observations of her mother’s ageing face, looking out of the window, and the repeated reassurance reflect suppressed fear of loss, showing how unspoken emotions can be more powerful than explicit expressions of grief.
VI What does Aunt Jennifer’s portrayal of the tigers suggest about her suppressed desires? (Aunt Jennifer’s Tigers) Ans. Aunt Jennifer’s tigers symbolise her suppressed desire for freedom, strength and fearlessness. Unlike her constrained life, the tigers move confidently and dominantly, reflecting her inner longing to escape patriarchal oppression and assert her identity beyond marital limitations.
Marking Scheme
2 marks for each question attempted (any five of six) - 5 × 2 = 10.
Q112 × 2 = 4Answer any two of the following three questions in 40-50 words each.Tap to view answer and marking scheme
I Based on the events of the story, elaborate on Charley’s fascination with the third level and the way he relates to the past. (The Third Level)
II Examine the outcome of the Tiger King’s actions in the light of the prophecy and comment on his belief about controlling fate. (The Tiger King) Ans. The Tiger King’s actions ironically fulfil the prophecy he tries to defeat. His obsessive attempts to control fate lead to his death, proving that arrogance and blind faith in power cannot alter destiny, and that human control over fate is ultimately illusory.
III Describe the idea that emerges from the author’s portrayal of Antarctica as a warning rather than a destination. (Journey to the End of the Earth) Ans. Antarctica is portrayed as a warning about environmental destruction rather than a tourist destination. The continent highlights the fragile balance of nature and the consequences of human interference, urging reflection on ecological responsibility before irreversible damage occurs.
Marking Scheme
2 marks for each question attempted (any two of three) - 2 × 2 = 4.
Q121 × 5 = 5Answer any one of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words.Tap to view answer and marking scheme
(A) How do Keeping Quiet by Pablo Neruda and Going Places by A. R. Barton present different responses to inner conflict, and what do these responses reveal about the impact of silence and imagination on human growth?
OR
(B) Indigo and Poets and Pancakes present power operating in very different contexts. Gandhi’s actions in Champaran and the ironic portrayal of Gemini Studios bring out ways in which authority is questioned in these texts. Discuss.
Answer
(A) Keeping Quiet by Pablo Neruda and Going Places by A. R. Barton present two contrasting ways in which individuals respond to inner conflict - through silence and through imagination. In Keeping Quiet, Neruda advocates purposeful silence as a means of self-reflection. By pausing our restless activity and withdrawing from constant action, individuals are encouraged to confront their inner conflicts honestly. This moment of stillness fosters self-awareness, empathy and emotional healing, suggesting that silence can lead to personal and collective growth. Ans. Charley’s fascination with the third level reflects his desire to escape modern stress into a simpler, secure past. The third level symbolises psychological refuge, where nostalgia replaces anxiety, showing how individuals often romanticise the past to cope with present uncertainties. In contrast, Going Places portrays imagination as an escape from reality. Sophie’s fantasies reflect her dissatisfaction with her present life, but her imagined future lacks practical grounding. Instead of resolving her inner conflict, imagination deepens her frustration and isolation, preventing meaningful growth. Together, the texts reveal that silence, when used consciously, promotes maturity and understanding, whereas unchecked imagination, divorced from reality, may hinder genuine human growth.
Answer
(B) Indigo and Poets and Pancakes present authority operating in very different contexts - colonial administration and cultural institutions - showing how power can be questioned through moral action and through irony. In Indigo, authority is exercised by the British planters who compel the Champaran peasants to grow indigo on part of their land and surrender the produce at unfair prices. This exploitation is challenged when Gandhi refuses to obey the official order to leave Champaran, choosing instead to face arrest. His calm defiance, the spontaneous gathering of peasants in support, and the eventual official inquiry expose the injustice of colonial authority and lead to meaningful reform for the peasants. In Poets and Pancakes, authority within Gemini Studios operates through hierarchy, status and insecurity rather than force. Figures like the Legal Adviser, whose influence far exceeds his actual contribution, reflect hollow authority sustained by fear and pretence. The author’s ironic tone exposes these power structures by subtly mocking their self-importance. Together, the texts reveal that authority can be challenged either through ethical resistance or by exposing its emptiness, depending on the context.
Marking Scheme
5 marks for the question attempted (any one of A or B).
Q131 × 5 = 5Answer any one of the following two questions, in about 120-150 words.Tap to view answer and marking scheme
(A) The meeting between Derry and Mr Lamb marks a turning point in Derry’s life. Discuss how Mr Lamb’s outlook challenges Derry’s fear-driven self-image and shapes his understanding of self-worth beyond physical limitations.
OR
(B) Dr Sadao’s decision to shelter an enemy soldier places him in a moral dilemma. Assess whether this decision can be seen as an act of moral courage in the face of competing national loyalties in The Enemy.
Answer
(A) The meeting between Derry and Mr Lamb becomes a crucial turning point in Derry’s life as it challenges the fear and self-pity that dominate his self-image. Derry views himself as ugly and unwanted because of his burnt face, believing that people see only his physical deformity. This fear has isolated him emotionally and socially. Mr Lamb, however, offers a radically different outlook. Despite having an artificial leg, he refuses to see himself as disabled or incomplete. Through his open gate, beehive and garden, he symbolises acceptance and freedom. His statement that ‘there are plenty of things to stare at’ urges Derry to focus on life’s possibilities rather than limitations. By treating Derry with respect and warmth, Mr Lamb helps him realise that self-worth comes from attitude, not appearance. This interaction empowers Derry to move beyond fear and begin redefining himself with confidence and hope.
Answer
(B) Dr Sadao’s decision to shelter and treat an enemy soldier places him at the centre of a profound moral dilemma, where professional ethics conflict with national loyalty. As a Japanese citizen during wartime, Sadao is expected to report the American prisoner, fully aware that harbouring him could lead to severe punishment. His fear of social disgrace and the possibility of execution underline the gravity of his choice. However, Sadao’s actions reflect moral courage rather than betrayal. Guided by his identity as a doctor, he prioritises the universal value of human life over political allegiance. His statement that a doctor’s duty is to save lives regardless of nationality reinforces this ethical stance. Though conflicted, he shelters the soldier, performs surgery and later helps him escape. Sadao’s decision demonstrates that true courage lies in upholding humanitarian principles even when they oppose dominant national expectations.
Marking Scheme
5 marks for the question attempted (any one of A or B).
Where Students Lose Marks in Class 12 English Core
The marking scheme of the cbse english core sample paper class 12 shows clear patterns in where marks slip away.
- Follow writing formats exactly. Format marks are lost easily in notices and letters.
- Stay within word limits. Extra words do not add marks.
- Quote the text in literature answers. A short reference to the chapter strengthens the answer.
- Answer reading questions from the passage. Do not add outside knowledge.
- Plan long answers. Introduction, body and conclusion earn organisation marks.
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