a. To regulate information written about the rulers and their policies.

b. To control the growing demand for modernising the army.

c. To restrict the spread of ideas of liberty and freedom expressed through newspapers and other publications.

d. To prevent the circulation of views suggesting that modernisation could strengthen traditional institutions.

Options:

A. Only a and b

B. Only a and c

C. Only b and d

D. Only c and d

ANSWER

B. Only a and c

SOLUTION

After 1815 the conservative regimes were autocratic. They imposed censorship laws to control what was said in newspapers, books, plays and songs, so as to check the spread of the ideas of liberty and freedom (c) and to govern what could be written about the rulers and their policies (a). Statements b and d do not relate to censorship at all.

Source: India and the Contemporary World - II, NCERT

A. Non-Cooperation Movement

B. Civil Disobedience Movement

C. Khilafat Movement

D. Quit India Movement

The following question is for candidates with Visual Impairment, in lieu of Q. No. 2.

Who among the following people established the ‘Swaraj Party’?

A. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and Bipin Chandra Pal

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai

C. Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose

D. C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru

ANSWER

D. Quit India Movement

For candidates with Visual Impairment: D. C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru

SOLUTION

The Swaraj Party was formed in 1923 by C. R. Das and Motilal Nehru, who wanted Congress members to return to council politics after the Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn.

Statement I: A good example of thriving pre-modern commercial and cultural ties connecting far-flung regions of the world are the silk routes.

Statement II: The significance of Chinese silk cargoes travelling the silk route to the west is indicated by the term ‘silk routes’.

A. Statement (I) is correct and (II) is incorrect

B. Statement (I) is incorrect and (II) is correct

C. Both (I) and (II) are correct

D. Both (I) and (II) are incorrect

ANSWER

C. Both (I) and (II) are correct

I. Print culture created the conditions for the French Revolution.

II. Martin Luther’s writings led to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation.

III. Menocchio reinterpreted the message of the Bible.

IV. Johann Gutenberg invented the printing press.

Choose the correct option:

A. III, II, I, IV

B. I, II, III, IV

C. IV, III, II, I

D. IV, II, III, I

ANSWER

D. IV, II, III, I

SOLUTION

Gutenberg’s printing press, c. 1448 (IV) → Luther’s Ninety-Five Theses, 1517, beginning the Protestant Reformation (II) → Menocchio’s reinterpretation of the Bible, for which he was tried in the 1580s (III) → print culture preparing the ground for the French Revolution of 1789 (I).

The Spanish carried germs such as those of smallpox, which spread deep into the continent ahead of any European who actually travelled there.

America’s original inhabitants had no immunity against these diseases brought from Europe. Whole communities were wiped out, and this biological advantage in the mid-sixteenth century made conquest easy for the Spanish.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for each reason.

Artists wanted to personify the nation. Nations were represented as female figures. The female form did not belong to any particular woman in real life; it was an abstract idea given a concrete form.

The female figure became an allegory of France and was given the name Marianne. Her characteristics - the red cap, the tricolour and the cockade - were drawn from those of Liberty and the Republic.

Similarly, Germania became the allegory of the German nation. Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, because the oak stands for heroism.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for each point.

OR

Question 6B3 marks

Assess the role of the Greek War of Independence in shaping nationalist consciousness among educated Europeans in the nineteenth century.

Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century. The growth of revolutionary nationalism in Europe sparked off a struggle for independence among the Greeks, which began in 1821.

Nationalists in Greece were supported by other Greeks living in exile and by many West Europeans who had sympathies for ancient Greek culture. Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim empire.

The English poet Lord Byron organised funds and later went to fight in the war, where he died of fever in 1824. Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for each point.

The effects of non-cooperation on the economic front were dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires.

The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from Rs 102 crore to Rs 57 crore.

In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or to finance foreign trade.

As the boycott movement spread, people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones.

Production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up, and the making and wearing of khadi became very popular.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for each point.

OR

Question 7B5 marks

Analyse how Indian merchants and industrialists associated themselves with the Civil Disobedience Movement, highlighting the forms of support they extended and the reasons for their participation.

During the First World War, Indian merchants and industrialists had made huge profits and become powerful. Keen on expanding their business, they reacted against colonial policies that restricted business activities.

They wanted protection against imports of foreign goods, and a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.

To organise business interests they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927. Led by industrialists such as Purshottamdas Thakurdas and G. D. Birla, they attacked colonial control over the Indian economy and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement when it was first launched.

They gave financial assistance and refused to buy or sell imported goods. Most businessmen came to see swaraj as a time when colonial restrictions on business would end and trade and industry would flourish without constraints.

After the failure of the Round Table Conference, however, business groups were no longer uniformly enthusiastic. They were apprehensive of the spread of militant activities and worried about prolonged disruption of business, as well as about the growing influence of socialism among younger Congress members.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for each point.

Print comes to India

The printing press first came to Goa with Portuguese missionaries in the mid-sixteenth century. Jesuit priests learnt Konkani and printed several tracts. By 1674, about 50 books had been printed in the Konkani and Kanara languages. Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book in 1579 at Cochin, and in 1713 the first Malayalam book was printed by them. By 1710, Dutch Protestant missionaries had printed 32 Tamil texts, many of them translations of older works.

The English language press did not grow in India till quite late. From 1780, James Augustus Hickey edited the Bengal Gazette, a weekly magazine that claimed to be independent of colonial influence. This marked the beginning of English newspaper printing in India.

Source: India and the Contemporary World - II, NCERT, Class X, Chapter 5

8.1Identify the newspaper that marked the beginning of English newspaper printing in India.[1]

ANSWER

The Bengal Gazette was the first newspaper that marked the beginning of English newspaper printing in India.

8.2Explain how James Augustus Hickey demonstrated independence through his newspaper.[1]

ANSWER

He published a private weekly newspaper that claimed to be open to all and not influenced by the colonial authorities.

8.3Evaluate how the early printing activities contributed to the spread of knowledge in India before English newspapers became popular.[2]

ANSWER

Early printing activities helped spread knowledge by printing books and religious texts in regional languages such as Konkani, Tamil and Malayalam. This made written material accessible to local people and encouraged the circulation of ideas long before the rise of English newspapers.

Marking scheme: 8.1 - 1 mark · 8.2 - 1 mark · 8.3 - 2 marks. Total 1 + 1 + 2 = 4 marks.

A) The place where a violent massacre took place on 13th April, 1919.

B) The place where Gandhiji led indigo peasants against the oppressive plantation system.

The following question is for candidates with Visual Impairment only, in lieu of Q. No. 9.

A) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.

B) The place where Gandhiji organised ‘Satyagraha’ in favour of cotton mill workers.

Outline map of India for Q. 9 and Q. 19

ANSWER

A - Amritsar (Jallianwala Bagh massacre, 13 April 1919)

B - Champaran (Champaran satyagraha of the indigo peasants, 1917)

For candidates with Visual Impairment: A - Dandi · B - Ahmedabad

Marking scheme: 1 + 1 = 2 marks.

A. Renewable resource

B. Developed resource

C. Potential resource

D. Reserve

ANSWER

C. Potential resource

SOLUTION

Potential resources are those which are found in a region but have not been utilised, usually because the technology to exploit them is not yet available.

[ The matching table (items 1, 2, 3 against X, Y, Z) is not present in the source file and has not been reproduced here. ]

Choose the correct option:

A. 1-Y, 2-X, 3-Z

B. 1-Z, 2-Y, 3-X

C. 1-X, 2-Z, 3-Y

D. 1-Y, 2-Z, 3-X

ANSWER

A. 1-Y, 2-X, 3-Z

(a) They are commonly found in valley floors and at the base of hills.

(b) They mainly contain minerals that easily dissolve in water.

(c) Gold and platinum are typical minerals found in such deposits.

(d) They are formed due to deposition by running water.

Choose the correct option:

A. (a), (b), (d)

B. (b), (c), (d)

C. (a), (b), (c)

D. (a), (c), (d)

ANSWER

D. (a), (c), (d)

SOLUTION

Placer deposits occur in the sands of valley floors and at the base of hills, and contain minerals such as gold, silver, tin and platinum. Statement (b) is wrong: placer minerals are precisely those that are not corroded or dissolved by water, which is why they survive transport and settle out.

A. Maharashtra-Goa belt

B. Odisha-Jharkhand belt

C. Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt

D. Ballari-Chitradurga belt

ANSWER

C. Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt

SOLUTION

Very high grade haematite is found in the Bailadila hills of this belt. The ore has excellent physical properties suited for steel making.

A. Overdependence on imported cotton yarn

B. Limited use of high-quality yarn due to decentralised weaving structure

C. Excessive mechanisation of weaving mills

D. Decline in traditional weaving skills

ANSWER

B. Limited use of high-quality yarn due to decentralised weaving structure

SOLUTION

India’s spinning sector is competitive and produces good yarn, but weaving is highly decentralised among handlooms and powerlooms, which cannot absorb much of that high-quality yarn. A great deal of yarn is therefore exported.

Assertion (A): Bengaluru has developed as one of the leading centres of the Information Technology and electronics industry in India.

Reason (R): The city is located close to major ports, which has been the primary factor encouraging the growth of electronics and IT industries there.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

ANSWER

C. A is true, but R is false

SOLUTION

Bengaluru is indeed a leading IT and electronics centre, so A is true. R is false: Bengaluru is an inland city and is not close to any major port. Its growth rests on a cool and pleasant climate, a large pool of skilled labour, research institutions and good connectivity.

Rooftop rainwater harvesting: rainwater collected from rooftops is stored in tanks for domestic use, reducing dependence on surface and groundwater during dry periods.

Johads or khadins: these structures store rainwater and allow it to seep into the ground, recharging groundwater and supporting irrigation in water-scarce areas.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for each practice, with a brief explanation.

Tea is more suitable in areas with high rainfall distributed throughout the year, unlike coffee, which prefers seasonal rainfall.

Tea requires a frost-free climate, which makes it ideal for tropical and sub-tropical regions.

Arabica coffee is suited to regions with moderate temperatures and well-drained slopes, such as the Western Ghats.

Tea plantations demand large-scale labour, while coffee requires comparatively less labour.

Coffee cultivation is geographically more restricted, whereas tea can be grown in several regions of India.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for each point of difference.

OR

Question 17B5 marks

Farmers in a region experiencing moderate rainfall, cool winters and assured irrigation plan to move from mixed cropping to the cultivation of a single cereal crop. Should they opt for rice or wheat? Support your answer with appropriate reasons based on crop requirements.

ANSWER

They should opt for wheat.

Wheat grows well in cool temperatures during the growing season, which matches the region’s cool winters.

The region’s moderate rainfall matches wheat’s requirement of 50-75 cm.

Wheat requires bright sunshine at the time of ripening, which is common in the winter months.

The availability of assured irrigation supports wheat cultivation where rainfall is limited.

Wheat is traditionally grown in the north and north-western regions of India, which have exactly these conditions.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for identifying wheat; 1 mark for each supporting reason.

Role of Communities in Forest Conservation

In many parts of India, especially in tribal and mountainous regions, local communities depend on forests for fuel, fodder and livelihood. Over time, people realised that uncontrolled exploitation by contractors and commercial interests was destroying forests and threatening their survival. This led to community-led conservation efforts where people actively protected forests through traditional practices and movements. One such movement began in the Himalayan region, where villagers protected trees by hugging them, highlighting the importance of people’s participation in conservation.

Source: Contemporary India - II, NCERT, Chapter 2

18.1State any one objective of community-based forest conservation.[1]

ANSWER

To ensure the protection and sustainable use of forest resources by involving local communities.

18.2How does people’s participation lead to more effective forest resource management? Elaborate with the help of two examples.[2]

Local communities possess traditional knowledge of forests, which helps in their sustainable management, and they develop a sense of responsibility and ownership that prevents over-exploitation.

Examples: farmers’ and citizens’ groups such as the Beej Bachao Andolan in Tehri and Navdanya have shown that diversified crop production without synthetic chemicals is possible and economically viable; and Joint Forest Management (JFM), under which local communities and the government jointly manage forest resources. *(Or any other relevant examples.)*

18.3Name the forest conservation movement referred to in the given source.[1]

ANSWER

The Chipko Movement.

Marking scheme: 18.1 - 1 mark · 18.2 - 2 marks (any two examples) · 18.3 - 1 mark. Total 4 marks.

I. (a) One of the largest water resource projects of India, built over the Narmada river in Gujarat.   OR   (b) The dam in the Sutluj-Beas river basin being used both for hydel power production and irrigation.   *(1 mark)*

II. Any two of the following:   *(1 × 2 = 2 marks)*

i. An iron and steel plant in Tamil Nadu

ii. A cotton textile industry in the capital city of Maharashtra

iii. Meenambakkam international airport

The following question is for candidates with Visual Impairment only, in lieu of Q. No. 19. Answer any three of the following.

i. Name one of the largest water resource projects of India, built over the Narmada river in Gujarat.

ii. Specify the name of an iron and steel plant in Tamil Nadu.

iii. State the location of the cotton textile industry in the capital city of Maharashtra.

iv. Where is the Meenambakkam international airport located?

I (a) Sardar Sarovar Dam, Gujarat  OR  I (b) Bhakra Nangal Dam

II (i) Salem, Tamil Nadu - iron and steel plant

II (ii) Mumbai - cotton textile industry

II (iii) Meenambakkam international airport, Chennai

Locations for Q. 9 and Q. 19 shown on the outline map of India

Marking scheme: I - 1 mark · II - 1 × 2 = 2 marks. Total 3 marks. Candidates with Visual Impairment are required only to name the locations; the answers are the same.

Assertion (A): Power-sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power.

Reason (R): It ensures that power does not remain in one hand.

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

ANSWER

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

A. It is morally correct

B. It upholds democratic ideals

C. It reduces the chances of social unrest

D. It guarantees equal economic growth for all sections.

ANSWER

C. It reduces the chances of social unrest

SOLUTION

Prudential reasons stress the better outcomes of power sharing - it reduces conflict between social groups and so ensures the stability of the political order. Options A and B are moral reasons, not prudential ones.

A. A federal party structure

B. Lack of internal democracy

C. Dynastic succession

D. Strong ideological unity

ANSWER

B. Lack of internal democracy

Source: Democratic Politics - II, NCERT

A. Most of the resources are utilised by the poor countries.

B. Most of the resources are utilised by the developing countries.

C. Most of the resources are utilised by the developed countries.

D. Most of the resources are utilised by the land owners.

The following question is for candidates with Visual Impairment, in lieu of Q. No. 23.

Which of the following has been successfully eliminated by democracies?

A. Economic inequalities among people.

B. The idea of political inequality.

C. Conflicts among people.

D. Differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to be treated.

ANSWER

C. Most of the resources are utilised by the developed countries.

For candidates with Visual Impairment: B. The idea of political inequality.

The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch-speaking and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central government.

Many powers of the central government have been given to the state governments of the two regions of the country, and the state governments are not subordinate to the central government.

Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation.

Marking scheme: Any 2 points, 1 mark each. Any other relevant point is acceptable.

People as the source of political power: in a democracy the people are the ultimate source of all political power and have the right and the opportunity to take part in governing themselves through institutions of self-government.

Active participation and representation: democracy ensures that citizens participate in political processes, are represented in government and share in decision-making.

Accountability and stability: democracy encourages public debate and the expression of opinion, allows people to hold the government accountable, reduces conflict between social groups and gives legitimacy to the elected government.

Marking scheme: Any 2 points, 1 mark each. Any other relevant answer is acceptable.

No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste. Every candidate and party therefore needs to win the confidence of more than one caste and community in order to win an election.

No party wins the votes of all the voters of a caste. When people say that a caste is the ‘vote bank’ of a party, it usually means only that a large proportion of the voters of that caste vote for that party.

Many parties may put up candidates from the same caste where that caste is believed to dominate a constituency. Some voters then have several candidates from their caste, while many have none.

The ruling party and the sitting MP or MLA frequently lose elections in our country. That could not happen if all castes and communities were frozen in their political preferences.

Marking scheme: Any 3 points, 1 mark each.

It is now constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.

Seats are reserved in the elected bodies and in the executive headships of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes.

At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.

An independent State Election Commission has been created in each state to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.

The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies; the nature of this sharing varies from state to state.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for each provision.

OR

Question 27B5 marks

‘The Constitution declared India as a Union of States. Although it did not use the word federation, the Indian Union is based on the principles of federalism.’ What makes India a federal country?

Division of powers: the Constitution divides powers between the Union and the state governments through three lists - the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List - so that each level works independently within its jurisdiction.

Written and supreme Constitution: India has a written Constitution and all governments must function within its limits. The Constitution, not Parliament, is the supreme authority.

Rigidity of the Constitution: the division of powers cannot be changed easily. Any amendment affecting the federal structure requires the approval of both Parliament and the state legislatures.

Independent judiciary: the Supreme Court acts as an impartial authority, settling disputes between the Centre and the states and protecting the Constitution.

Dual government system: there are two levels of government - the central government for the whole country and state governments for their respective states.

Financial autonomy: states have their own sources of revenue, though some taxes are shared with the Centre.

Marking scheme: Any 5 points, 1 mark each.

Need for political parties

Political parties are easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties. If you travel to remote parts of our country and speak to the less educated citizens, you could come across people who may not know anything about our Constitution or about the nature of our government. But chances are that they would know something about our political parties.

At the same time, this visibility does not mean popularity. Most people tend to be very critical of political parties. They tend to blame parties for all that is wrong with our democracy and our political life. Parties have become identified with social and political divisions. Therefore, it is natural to ask if we need political parties at all? About a hundred years ago, there were few countries in the world that had any political party. Now there are few that do not have parties.

Source: Democratic Politics - II, NCERT, Class X

28.1Modern democracies cannot exist without political parties. Analyse the given statement by giving one reason to support your answer.[1]

Every candidate in the elections would be independent, so no one would be able to make any promise to the people about a major policy change.

A government might be formed, but its usefulness would remain uncertain: elected representatives would be accountable only to their own constituency for what they do in their locality. *(Any one point.)*

28.2Highlight any two functions of a political party.[2]

Contesting elections: parties select candidates and contest elections, offering voters a choice.

Formulating policies and programmes: they put forward their ideologies as policies and programmes for people to support.

Making laws: parties play a decisive role in debating and passing laws in the legislature.

Forming and running governments: the majority party forms the government and implements its agenda.

Playing the role of opposition: defeated parties act as the opposition, criticising the government and holding it accountable.

Shaping public opinion: parties raise issues and influence how people think.

Providing access to government: they act as a link, helping citizens reach government machinery and welfare schemes. *(Any two.)*

28.3Why has India opted for a multi-party system? Give any one reason to support your answer.[1]

ANSWER

India adopted a multi-party system mainly because of its vast social and geographical diversity - different religions, cultures, languages and regions - which could not be adequately represented by just one or two parties. A multi-party system gives a broader voice to these interests and prevents the concentration of power in a single group.

Marking scheme: 28.1 - 1 mark · 28.2 - 2 marks (any two functions) · 28.3 - 1 mark. Total 4 marks.

A. People living in different conditions may prioritise different needs and goals.

B. Many citizens fail to understand how development plans are made.

C. National development follows only one universally accepted definition.

D. Everyone is expected to agree with a single idea of development.

ANSWER

A. People living in different conditions may prioritise different needs and goals.

[ The table of economic activities, examples and interdependence (blanks 1 and 2) is not present in the source file and has not been reproduced here. ]

Choose the correct option:

A. 1: Manufacturing of furniture, 2: Supports tertiary sector

B. 1: IT services, 2: Provides raw materials to secondary sector

C. 1: Farming/mining, 2: Relies on raw materials from primary sector

D. 1: Banking/transport, 2: Relies on outputs from tertiary sector

ANSWER

C. 1: Farming/mining, 2: Relies on raw materials from primary sector

A. ₹200 crore, tertiary sector

B. ₹200 crore, primary sector

C. ₹300 crore, tertiary sector

D. ₹200 crore, secondary sector

ANSWER

A. ₹200 crore, tertiary sector

SOLUTION

Secondary sector = GDP − (primary + tertiary) = 900 − (300 + 400) = ₹200 crore. Comparing the three - primary ₹300 crore, secondary ₹200 crore, tertiary ₹400 crore - the tertiary sector contributes the most.

A. It is used to compare the value of different goods.

B. People accept it in return for goods and services, making trade easier.

C. Money helps individuals save their wealth safely for the future.

D. It enables record-keeping of every transaction made in the economy.

ANSWER

B. People accept it in return for goods and services, making trade easier.

SOLUTION

As a medium of exchange, money removes the double coincidence of wants required under barter, since everyone is willing to accept it in payment.

A. Interest rate

B. Mode of repayment

C. Collateral

D. Inflation rate

ANSWER

D. Inflation rate

SOLUTION

Terms of credit comprise the interest rate, the collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of repayment. The inflation rate is a general economic condition, not a term agreed between lender and borrower.

Assertion (A): Multinational companies help in integrating production and markets across countries.

Reason (R): They set up production units in one country and export goods and components to other countries.

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

ANSWER

A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Ravi noticed that in many villages of India, more people are working on farms than are actually needed, and yet many of them do not get proper wages or regular work. What could be the reason behind such a situation? Suggest any two ways to tackle this problem effectively.

ANSWER

This situation is called disguised unemployment, in which more people are engaged in work than are really required, so that removing some of them would not reduce output.

Causes (any one)

Excess labour in agriculture.

Lack of alternative employment opportunities.

Poverty and population pressure.

Lack of the skills and training required for other kinds of work.

Ways to tackle it (any two)

Diversification of activities: introduce other rural occupations such as small-scale industry, dairying and poultry farming.

Land reforms and consolidation: combine small plots to make farming more efficient, so that fewer workers are underemployed.

Skill development and education: train people for non-agricultural jobs in towns and industry to reduce surplus labour on farms.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for identifying disguised unemployment and its cause; 1 mark for each of two remedies. Total 1 + 2 = 3 marks.

SHG members are collectively responsible for repayment, so the bank has an assurance of repayment even without collateral.

The group itself monitors individual members and follows up cases of non-repayment.

Regular savings and organised meetings demonstrate discipline and reliability, which makes banks confident to lend.

Marking scheme: Any 3 points, 1 mark each.

Technology - in transport, telecommunication and the Internet - allows the fast movement of goods, services and information across countries.

Liberalisation reduces trade barriers and permits foreign investment, making it easier for businesses to operate globally.

Together they increase interconnection between countries, integrate markets and expand opportunities for trade and investment.

Marking scheme: Any 3 points, 1 mark each.

While studying the table given below for their Social Science project, two classmates A and B notice significant differences in the Literacy Rate and the Infant Mortality Rate while comparing the development indicators of three states. Analyse how the development levels of these states differ and suggest the inferences A and B can draw. What areas should each state focus on to improve their overall development?

[ The table ‘Comparison of Development Indicators’ for Kerala, Haryana and Bihar is not present in the source file and has not been reproduced here. ]

Adapted from: Economic Survey 2023-24; National Sample Survey Organisation (Report No. 585), National Statistical Office, Government of India; National Family Health Survey (NFHS-5) 2019-21, IIPS, Mumbai.

ANSWER

Kerala performs best on both indicators - the highest literacy and the lowest infant mortality. Bihar performs the weakest, while Haryana lies in between, with moderate literacy but a high infant mortality rate.

Inferences that may be drawn (any two)

Higher literacy appears to be linked with better health outcomes: Kerala’s high literacy (94%) coincides with a very low infant mortality rate (6).

States with lower literacy tend to show weaker health results, as in Bihar, whose low literacy (62%) accompanies a high infant mortality rate (27), indicating limited access to quality education and healthcare.

Kerala’s performance suggests that long-term social investment pays off: a consistent focus on education and public health has produced both high literacy and very low infant mortality.

The wide gaps between the three states show that development in India is uneven, as states progress at different speeds depending on policy, governance and the allocation of resources.

Areas to focus on (any two)

Haryana should improve maternal and child healthcare services to bring down its high infant mortality rate, while continuing to strengthen the quality of education.

Bihar needs to prioritise both the expansion of literacy and the improvement of basic health facilities.

Kerala should aim to maintain and further strengthen its existing education and healthcare systems.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for the comparison of development levels; 2 marks for any two inferences; 2 marks for any two suggested areas of focus. Total 1 + 2 + 2 = 5 marks.

OR

Question 38B5 marks

Study the table given above and answer: which of the three states is likely to have a better human development standard than the others? Justify your answer by explaining any two reasons. Why is it important to pay attention to indicators such as the Infant Mortality Rate (IMR), the Literacy Rate and the Net Attendance Ratio in bringing about the overall development of a state?

ANSWER

Kerala is likely to have a better human development standard than Haryana and Bihar.

Justification (any two)

Low Infant Mortality Rate (6): Kerala has the lowest number of children dying before the age of one, which shows strong healthcare and better life expectancy.

High Literacy Rate (94%) and Net Attendance Ratio (94%): a high proportion of people can read and write and most children attend secondary school, reflecting good education and social development.

Why these indicators matter (any two)

Infant Mortality Rate: reducing infant deaths ensures healthier children and contributes to a stronger, more productive population.

Literacy Rate and Net Attendance Ratio: education empowers people and improves awareness of health, employment and civic responsibilities, leading to the overall development of the state.

Income alone cannot capture well-being; these indicators measure the quality of life that money cannot buy.

Marking scheme: 1 mark for identifying Kerala; 2 marks for any two reasons; 2 marks for the importance of the indicators. Total 1 + 2 + 2 = 5 marks.